Cost basis zero is always an option, and afaik is not uncommonly used if you don't have good evidence of a nonzero cost basis. (Although to get better discussion it's a good idea to mention what country you're in!).
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Thanks! A major European country using FIFO, and if I were to guess a not so tech savvy and capable tax office (could be wrong here though).
My question would apply broadly though to most major western countries, the question really is if I have a bunch of no-kyc utxos, if in the future I need to convert back to fiat (house, big purchase) - what 'do I say/do'. I mean I get the no-KYC, and that the future hopefully is one where we can exchange bitcoin for goods and service directly with our 'neighbor'. But in the near term, I don't want to have bitcoin that is 'stuck' in no-KYC land if I need it for an emergency.
Hope this makes sense and thanks for replying.
Tax and house purchase are 2 different things right. For the latter, I can only say that I know that in several countries, providing evidence for the source of funds is, nowadays, a requirement. But it doesn't need to be perfect evidence, just, evidence that is plausible enough for e.g. notaries, lawyers. I *think* this is true (nowadays) across basically all "developed" countries, but I'm not sure.